Communication in Health Social Care Essay

Communication between care workers and service users is essential for promoting and maximising the rights of users of health and social care services. All patients and users of our service should be kept informed about their treatment. They should be able to talk to you or the workers making decisions about their treatment. It is your responsibility to overcome any problems with communication that may arise, not just in giving users information in a format that they can understand, but also in giving them sufficient opportunity to discuss their situation with the relevant people. The expected level of communication may not always be plausible; for example, some patients do not open up easily or may not be in the mood to have a conversation. Try to understand do not force them to talk. If the service user does not have the capacity to participate in decision making about their treatment, or an emergency situation this might signify that urgent treatment is required. The Health and social care sector is a vast sector and it constitutes of different aspect of care to different types of service users. There are many relevant theories which is applicable in the Health and Social care sector. Abraham Maslow defined some of these theories as humanistic, behaviourist, cognitive and psychodynamic. In this report I will be explaining the humanistic theory of communication and its relevance to communication in health and social care. I will also cover its strengths and weaknesses. Humanistic Theory is achieved whereby you approach an individual positively. In health and social care service users are considered to be vulnerable and the way to approach them should be in a well positively way by using humanistic manner, thoughts, actions, love, respect and dignity by providing the relevant care according to the philosophy of care as per legislation. Strengths of Humanistic Theory Person centred Care Worker is non-intrusive Meets service user as equal in process and not expert Does not label service user Follows care value base Unconditional regard, empathy and genuineness required, qualities many care workers already have. Can be applied to many situations Very positive view Focuses on the short term nature of therapy It provides power to individuals by emphasising free will and the ability to change. The therapy provides great insight into what any experiences have meant to the individual. Weaknesses of Humanistic Theory Short term Service user needs good communication skills Difficult to show effectiveness Care worker has to be non-judgmental of all people which can be hard to maintain It does not pay sufficient attention to unconscious thoughts.

Edward Scissorhands Theme Analysis

In Edward Scissorhands the main focus of the film is the character Edward himself. Edward is an invention that would appear to be a monster, but has a very good soul. He was left alone and socially disconnected after his inventor died, leaving him â€Å"unfinished† with scissors for hands. He is dressed in a strange leather outfit and has a messy, untamed black hair. Looking into his eyes you could see the heartache of being trapped in an unwanted body. Edward resides alone in the dark dusty mansion before Peg, an Avon selling representative, barges in and takes him home after seeing how helpless of a person he is. Edward is a very gentle and humble human being with a disconnection to the real world. Being secluded from everything for so long he desired the attention Peg was willing to give. I think Tim Burton’s primary aim was to sketch out this unique character with his fascinating personality. He wanted to show the audience how this person may look like a monster but on the inside he is really someone special. He easily fascinates the neighbors with his shrub trimming and hair cutting skills. Edward ends up falling in love with Peg’s daughter Kim, who was dating the towns bully Jim. Jim always made Edward feel less of a person than he is, and pointed out that he would never be able to hold Kim’s hand without hurting her. Edward gets tricked into a â€Å"robbery† and this misunderstanding turns the town against him. If Edward were just another neighbor, this misunderstanding would have been forgivable. However, since Edward is different and mistaken as harmful he is shunned out of the town after trying to save Kim’s little brother off the street. Edward ends up back in seclusion in the black and white mansion out of the town where they believe he is dead. The town returns back to normal, but Edward continues to touch them by giving the effect of snow falling with the shavings of his ice sculptures. I think Tim Burton’s film, Edward Scissorhands, makes a significant statement on judging others out of the norm. People in today’s society have a hard time accepting others that are different, even people from other cultures. This film demonstrates how society works by the brightly colored, similarly fashioned neighbors and the opposite, Edward, trying to be accepted for who he is. As Peg explained to Edward, â€Å"blending is the secret†, it almost appears as if Edward was more human than those of the suburb.

Introduction of Information Security Systems Cis4385

1. Which if the following IPv6 address type is assigned to multiple interfaces but packets will only be delivered to one? a. Multicast b. Anycast c. Unicast d. Broadcast Grade:1 User Responses:b. Anycast Feedback:a. An anycast address is assigned to a group of interfaces on multiple nodes. Packets are delivered to the â€Å"first† interface only. 2. Routers operate at which OSI layer? a. Physical b. Transport c. Network d. Session Grade:1 User Responses:c. Network Feedback:a. Routers operate at the network layer making routing decisions based on IP addresses. 3. Which of the following is NOT a private IPv4 address? Choose all that apply. a. 192. 168. 5. 60 b. 172. 25. 6. 4 c. 10. 0. 6. 5 d. 26. 68. 6. 1 Grade:1 User Responses:d. 26. 68. 6. 1 Feedback:a. The private IP address ranges are as follows. IP Class Assigned Range Class A 10. 0. 0. 0-10. 255. 255. 255 Class B 172. 16. 0. 0-172. 31. 255. 255 Class C 192. 168. 0. 0-192. 168. 255. 2554. What is a server that evaluates Internet requests from LAN devices against a set called? a. Proxy b. Firewall c. Load balancer d. NAT server Grade:1 User Responses:a. Proxy Feedback:a. A server that evaluates Internet requests from LAN devices against a set of rules is called a proxy server. NAT servers perform private to public address translation; load balancers manage traffic between cluster hosts; and a firewall filters traffic based on access control lists.5. Which type of device maintains awareness of the status of connections, thereby preventing IP spoofing attacks? a. Stateless packet filterin g firewall b. Stateful packet filtering firewall c. NAT filter d. Application-level gateway Grade:1 User Responses:b. Stateful packet filtering firewall Feedback:a. A stateful packet filtering firewall is one that monitors the state of each connection by examining the header of each packet. Read this  Chapter 2 – Why Security is Needed A stateless packet filtering firewall does not do this. NAT filters perform only private-to-public address translation. An application-level gateway provides protection to a specific application such as FTP.6. Which of the following firewall services works at the session layer of the OSI model? a. Application layer gateway b. Stateful filtering c. NAT d. Circuit-level gateway Grade:0 User Responses:c. NAT Feedback:a. Circuit-level gateways work at the Session Layer of the OSI model and apply security mechanisms when a TCP or UDP connection is established; they act as a go between for the Transport and Application Layers in TCP/IP.After the connection has been made, packets can flow between the hosts without further checking. Circuit-level gateways hide information about the private network, but they do not filter individual packets.7. Which of the following are the two main functions of a proxy server? a. Caching of web pages b. NAT c. Domain authentication d. DHCP Grade:1 User Respo nses:a. Caching of web pages,c. Domain authentication Feedback:a. A proxy server secures a network by keeping machines behind it anonymous; it does this through the use of NAT. It also improves web performance by caching web pages from servers on the Internet for a set amount of time. b. A proxy server secures a network by keeping machines behind it anonymous; it does this through the use of NAT. It also improves web performance by caching web pages from servers on the Internet for a set amount of time.8. Which of the following devices can detect but not prevent attacks across the entire network? a. NIDS b. Host-based IDS c. NIPS d. Protocol Analyzer Grade:1 User Responses:a. NIDS Feedback:a. Network Intrusion Detection Systems (NIDS) detect but do not prevent attacks across the entire network. Host-based IDS can protect only the host on which it is installed. Network Intrusion Protection Systems (NIPS) can detect and prevent attacks across the entire network. A Protocol Analyzer ca n capture traffic but not act upon it.9. When a NIPs blocks legitimate traffic, what is it known as? a. False negative b. True negative c. False positive d. True positive Grade:1 User Responses:c. False positive Feedback:a. A blocking of traffic is a positive action, and when it is in response to legitimate traffic, it is considered a false action; thus it is a false positive. A false negative would be when an action is NOT taken on traffic that is not legitimate. The other two options are normal actions; a true negative is the allowing of legitimate traffic, whereas a true positive is the blocking of illegitimate traffic.10. Which of the following types of NIPS reacts to actions that deviate from a baseline? a. Signature-based b. Heuristic c. Anomaly-based d. Bit blocker Grade:1 User Responses:c. Anomaly-based Feedback:a. Anomaly-based NIPS recognizes traffic that is unusual and reports it. Signature-based NIPs are configured with the signatures of attacks. Heuristics looks for pat terns in the traffic, whereas bit blocker is a not a type of NIPs.11. Which of the following systems attempt to stop the leakage of confidential data, often concentrating on communications? a. DHCP b. DNS c. DLP d. STP Grade:1 User Responses:c. DLP Feedback:a. Data loss prevention (DLP) systems are designed to protect data by way of content inspection. They are meant to stop the leakage of confidential data, often concentrating on communications. As such, they are often also referred to as data leak prevention (DLP) devices, information leak prevention (ILP) devices, and extrusion prevention systems.Regardless, they are intended to be used to keep data from leaking past a computer system or network and into unwanted hands.12. When a company buys fire insurance they are ____________ risk. a. accepting b. avoiding c. transferring d. reducing Grade:1 User Responses:c. transferring Feedback:a. It is possible to transfer some risk to a third-party. An example of risk transference (also k nown as risk sharing) would be an organization that purchases insurance for a group of servers in a datacenter.The organization still takes on the risk of losing data in the case of server failure, theft, and disaster, but transfers the risk of losing the money those servers are worth in the case they are lost.13. Which of the following processes block external files that use JavaScript or images from loading into the browser? a. URL filtering b. Content filtering c. Malware inspection d. Blacklists Grade:1 User Responses:b. Content filtering Feedback:a. Content filtering is a process that blocks external files that use JavaScript or images from loading into the browser. URL filtering blocks pages based on the URL.Malware inspection looks for malware based on a signature file, and blacklists are items to be denied by spam filters.14. Which of the following actions should NOT be taken for the default account on a network device? a. Delete it. b. Change the password. c. Disable it. d. Leave it as is. Grade:1 User Responses:d. Leave it as is. Feedback:a. The default account has a well-known username and password, so it should be either deleted or disabled, or at a minimum its password should be changed.15. Firewall rules are typically based in all but which of the following? a. IP addresses b. MAC addresses c. Port numbers . Content type Grade:1 User Responses:d. Content type Feedback:a. Firewall rules are typically based on IP addresses, MAC addresses, or port numbers, but they cannot filter for content.16. Which of the following is the target of a double tagging attack? a. VPNs b. VLANs c. Collision domains d. DMZs Grade:1 User Responses:b. VLANs Feedback:a. A double tagging attack can enable the attacker to view traffic from multiple VLANs.17. A network created to allow access to resources from the Internet, while maintaining separation from the internal network is called a ______? a. VPN b. VLAN c. Honeypot d. DMZ Grade:1User Responses:d. DMZ Feedback:a. When talking about computer security, a Demilitarized Zone (DMZ) is a special area of the network (sometimes referred to as a subnetwork) that houses servers which host information accessed by clients or other networks on the Internet, but which does not allow access to the internal network.18. How can access to the remote management of a router be protected? a. Content filtering b. ACLs c. Firewalls d. IPS Grade:0 User Responses:c. Firewalls Feedback:a. Remote access to a router is usually done via Telnet or SSH. The port used (vty line) can be secured using an access control list. The other options can all be used to help protect routers but not access the remote management function.19. You need to allow access from your network to all web sites. What port numbers should be opened in the firewall? Choose all that apply. a. 25 b. 443 c. 80 d. 119 e. 22 f. 23 Grade:1 User Responses:c. 80 Feedback:a. HTTP and HTTPS are the two services you need to allow access to use ports 80 and 443 res pectively.20. Which of the following mitigation techniques can prevent MAC flooding? a. Secure VLANs b. Prevent ICMP responses c. 802. 1x d. 802. 1q Grade:1 User Responses:c. 802. 1x Feedback:a.MAC flooding, which involves overwhelming the memory of the switch with MAC frames sourced from different MAC addresses, can be prevented by requiring authentication on each port through 802. 1x. Secure VLANs cannot prevent this because the frames don’t need to enter a VLAN to cause the problem. ICMP is at Layer 3, these frames are at Layer 2, and 802. 1q is a VLAN tagging protocol that does not prevent frames from entering the switch through access ports.21. Which of the following attacks cannot be mitigated with a flood guard? a. Smurf attack b. Fraggle c. Teardrop attack d. Session theft Grade:1 User Responses:d.Session theft Feedback:a. The smurf, fraggle, and teardrop attacks all involve sending a flood of packets to a device, using different types of malformed packets. A session theft attack is when a session cookie is stolen and used to authenticate to a server.22. Loop protection is designed to address problems that occur with which device? a. Switch b. Hub c. Router d. Firewall Grade:0 User Responses:b. Hub Feedback:a. Loops occur when switches have redundant connections causing a loop. Loop guard (or loop protection) can prevent loops on the switch.23. When creating an ACL which of the following statements is NOT true? a.The order of the rules is important for proper functioning b. You must include a deny all statement at the end of the rule set for proper functioning c. The more specific rules should be placed at the beginning of the rule list d. Once created, the ACL must be applied to an interface Grade:1 User Responses:b. You must include a deny all statement at the end of the rule set for proper functioning Feedback:a. There is an implied deny all statement at the end of each ACL and it is not required to include one.24. Which of the following is a n example of insecure network bridging in a LAN? a. Laptop connected to a hotspot and an ad hoc network . Laptop connected to a wireless network and the wired LAN at the same time c. Router connected to two subnets d. PC connected with two NIC to the same LAN Grade:1 User Responses:b. Laptop connected to a wireless network and the wired LAN at the same time Feedback:a. When a laptop connects to a wireless network and the wired LAN at the same time, it can create a bridge between the two allowing access to the LAN. The other scenarios do not create a security problem for the LAN.25. When the administrator creates a rule on the firewall to prevent FTP traffic, this is a type of __________rule. . implicit deny b. implicit allow c. explicit deny d. explicit allow Grade:1 User Responses:c. explicit deny Feedback:a. When traffic is specified to be prevented, it is an explicit deny. When it is denied simply because it was not specifically allowed, that is an implicit deny.26. Network Acces s Control (NAC) is an example of_______________. a. role-based management b. rules-based management c. port-based access d. application layer filtering Grade:1 User Responses:b. rules-based management Feedback:a. Network Access Control (NAC) uses rules by which connections to a network are governed.Computers attempting to connect to a network are denied access unless they comply with rules including levels of antivirus protection, system updates, and so on—effectively weeding out those who would perpetuate malicious attacks.27. What type of device is required for communication between VLANs? a. Hub b. Switch c. Router d. Firewall Grade:1 User Responses:c. Router Feedback:a. Hosts in different VLANs are also in different subnets and routing must be performed for them to communicate.28. Which of the following would be least likely to be placed in the DMZ? a. Web server b. DNS server c. Domain controller d. FTP serverGrade:1 User Responses:c. Domain controller Feedback:a. All th e options except a domain controller are often placed in the DMZ so they are accessible to the outside world. A DC however is sensitive and should NOT be placed in the DMZ.29. Subnetting a network creates segmentation at which layer of the OSI model? a. Layer 1 b. Layer 2 c. Layer 3 d. Layer 4 Grade:1 User Responses:c. Layer 3 Feedback:a. Subnetting a network creates segmentation using IP addresses, which is Layer 3.30. What service is required to represent multiple private IP addresses with a single public IP address? a. NAT b. DHCP c. DNS d. DLP Grade:0User Responses:a. NAT Feedback:a. Network Address Translation (NAT) is required to represent multiple private IP addresses with a single public IP address. The specific form of NAT required to represent multiple private IP addresses with a single public IP address is called Port Address Translation (PAT).31. Which of the following is NOT a remote access protocol? a. MS-CHAP b. CHAP c. LDAP d. PAP Grade:1 User Responses:c. LDAP Feedb ack:a. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol is used for accessing directory services such as Active Directory. It is not used in remote access. All other options are remote access protocols.32. Which of the following devices are susceptible to war dialing? a. Modems b. Firewalls c. Content filters d. Load balancers Grade:0 User Responses:a. Modems Feedback:a. Any devices that accept phone calls such as modems or PBX systems with remote phone access are susceptible to war dialing.33. When computers are not allowed to connect to the network without proper security patches and virus updates, the network is using a form of _____________. a. PAT b. DAC c. NAC d. DMZ Grade:0 User Responses:d. DMZ Feedback:a. Network Access Control (NAC) uses rules by which connections to a network are governed.Computers attempting to connect to a network are denied access unless they comply with rules including levels of antivirus protection, system updates, and so on—effectively weeding out those who would perpetuate malicious attacks.34. Which of the following items do not need to be changed on a new router to ensure secure router management? a. IP address b. Administrator name c. Administrator password d. IOS version Grade:1 User Responses:d. IOS version Feedback:a. All the options except the IOS version can be set to defaults from the factory and should be changed because they are well known.35. Which of the following is NOT an example of cloud computing? a. SaaS b. IaaS c. PaaS d. BaaS Grade:1 User Responses:d. BaaS Feedback:a. Software as a Service (SaaS), Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS), and Platform as a Service (PaaS) are all forms of cloud computing.36. On which concept is cloud computing based? a. load balancing b. virtualization c. RAID d. DLP Grade:1 User Responses:b. virtualization Feedback:a. All forms of cloud computing use virtualization.37. A three legged perimeter is a form of ______________. a. VPN b. DMZ c. NAT d. ACL Grade:1 User Responses:b. DMZ Fee dback:a. A three-legged perimeter is a firewall or server with three NICs: one pointed to the LAN, one to the Internet, and one to the DMZ.38. Which of the following is NOT a benefit provided by subnetting? a. It increases security by compartmentalizing the network. b. It is a more efficient use of IP address space. c. It reduces broadcast traffic and collisions. d. It eases administration of the network. Grade:1 User Responses:d. It eases administration of the network. Feedback:a. Subnetting provides a number of benefits but easing administration is not one of them.39. Which of the following is the result of implementing VLANs? . Larger broadcast domains b. Smaller collision domains c. Smaller broadcast domains d. Larger collision domains Grade:1 User Responses:c. Smaller broadcast domains Feedback:a. VLANs break up the network into subnets and as such result in smaller broadcast domains.40. Which of the following services helps conserve public IP addresses? a. NAT b. DHCP c. DNS d . SLIP Grade:0 User Responses:c. DNS Feedback:a. By allowing the use of private IP addresses inside each network and by representing those groups of private IP addresses with a single public IP address, public IP addresses are conserved by NAT.41. Which of the following remote access protocols are used with VPNs? Choose all that apply. a. PPTP b. PPP c. L2TP d. SLIP Grade:1 User Responses:c. L2TP,d. SLIP Feedback:a. Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP) and Layer Two Tunneling protocol (L2TP) are used with VPNs. PPP and SLIP are used for dial-up. /b. Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP) and Layer Two Tunneling protocol (L2TP) are used with VPNs. PPP and SLIP are used for dial-up.42. Which of the following security protocols operates at the network layer of the OSI model? a. IPSec b. SSH c. SSL d. TLS Grade:1 User Responses:a. IPSec Feedback:a.One of the key features of IPSec is its operation at the network layer enabling it to protect any type of communication operating at th e upper layers of the OSI model.43. Which of the following are components of SNMP? Choose all that apply. a. NMS b. IPSec c. Agent d. CARP Grade:1 User Responses:b. IPSec,c. Agent Feedback:a. The three components of SNMP are a network management system (NMS), agent software, and the managed device, where the agent software operates. /b. The three components of SNMP are a network management system (NMS), agent software, and the managed device, where the agent software operates.44. SSL is designed as a secure replacement for which of the following? a. PPP b. Telnet c. TLS d. SSH Grade:0 User Responses:d. SSH Feedback:a. SSL is designed as a secure replacement for Telnet, which transmits in clear text.45. Which of the following protocols supersedes SSL? a. SSH b. TLS c. S/MIME d. EAP Grade:0 User Responses:a. SSH Feedback:a. TLS 1. 2, the latest version, is used when establishing an HTTPS connection and supersedes SSLv3.46. The operation of which of the following protocols makes the SY N flood attack possible? a. IPX/SPX b. AppleTalk c. TCP/IP d. RIP Grade:1 User Responses:c. TCP/IP Feedback:a.TCP/IP uses a three-way handshake for its connection, and the SYN flood attack attempts to take advantage of the operation of this connection operation.47. Which of the following provides secure web access? a. SFTP b. HTTP c. HTTPS d. SSH Grade:1 User Responses:c. HTTPS Feedback:a. HTTPS uses port 443 and is the standard for secure web access.48. SCP is a secure copy protocol that uses the port of which other protocol for transfers? a. HTTPS b. SSH c. SSL d. FTPS Grade:0 User Responses:d. FTPS Feedback:a. Secure copy (SCP) is another example of a protocol that uses another protocol (and its corresponding port). It uses SSH and ultimately uses port 22 to transfer data.49. Which of the following protocols is abused when a ping flood occurs? a. SNMP b. IGMP c. ICMP d. EIGRP Grade:0 User Responses:a. SNMP Feedback:a. Ping floods use ICMP echo request packets aimed at the target. 50. Which of the following security mechanisms are built into IPv6? a. IPSec b. SSL c. HTTPS d. EAP Grade:1 User Responses:a. IPSec Feedback:a. IPv6 has IPSec support built in.51. What method is used by SSL to obtain and validate certificates? a. SPI b. PKI c. TLS d. EAP Grade:1 User Responses:b. PKI Feedback:a.SSL and TLS use a public Key Infrastructure (PKI) to obtain and validate certificates.52. What port number does FTPS use to protect the transmission? a. 21 b. 88 c. 443 d. 445 Grade:0 User Responses:a. 21 Feedback:a. FTPS uses SSL or TLS over port 443 to make a secure connection.53. Which of the following protocols uses port 22, normally used by SSH, to make a secure connection? a. FTPS b. SCP c. SFTP d. SSL Grade:0 User Responses:b. SCP Feedback:a. Secure FTP (SFTP) uses port 22, the port for SSH, which is why it is also sometimes called SSH FTP.54. Which protocol uses ports 161 and 162? a. SMTP b. IMAP4 . SNMP d. IGMP Grade:0 User Responses:a. SMTP Feedback:a. SNMP is used to collect information about and make changes to devices on the network. It uses ports 161 and 162.55. Which protocol uses the same port as HTTPS? a. SCP b. FTPS c. SFTP d. IMAP4 Grade:0 User Responses:c. SFTP Feedback:a. FTP secure (FTPS) uses port 443, which is also used by HTTPS.56. Which protocol uses port 69? a. SCP b. FTPS c. TFTP d. IMAP4 Grade:1 User Responses:c. TFTP Feedback:a. TFTP uses port 69.57. What port number is used by Telnet? a. 80 b. 443 c. 21 d. 23 Grade:1 User Responses:d. 23 Feedback:a. Port 23 is used by Telnet.58. Which port does HTTP use? a. 80 b. 443 c. 21 d. 23 Grade:0 User Responses:b. 443 Feedback:a. HTTP uses port 80.59. Which port does SCP use to transfer data? a. 80 b. 22 c. 21 d. 23 Grade:0 User Responses:c. 21 Feedback:a. SCP uses SSH and thus port 22 to transfer data.60. Which protocol uses port 443? a. HTTPS b. FTPS c. TFTP d. IMAP4 Grade:1 User Responses:a. HTTPS Feedback:a. HTTPS uses port 443.61. Which two protocols use port 22? a. HTTPS b. FT PS c. SSH d. SCP Grade:2 User Responses:c. SSH,d. SCP Feedback:a. SCP uses SSH and thus port 22 to transfer data, so both protocols use this port. b. SCP uses SSH and thus port 22 to transfer data, so both protocols use this port.62. Which ports does the NetBIOS protocol uses? Choose all that apply. a. 138 b. 139 c. 137 d. 140 Grade:3 User Responses:a. 138,b. 139,c. 137 Feedback:a. The NetBIOS protocol uses ports 137 through 139. /b. The NetBIOS protocol uses ports 137 through 139. /c. The NetBIOS protocol uses ports 137 through 139.63. What protocol uses port 53? a. HTTPS b. FTPS c. SSH d. DNS Grade:0 User Responses:b. FTPS Feedback:a. DNS uses port 53.64. Which port number does RDP use? a. 3389 b. 1723 c. 1701 d. 140 Grade:1 User Responses:a. 3389 Feedback:a. Port 3389 is used for Remote Desktop (RDP).65. What protocol uses port 25? a. HTTPS b. SMTP c. SSH d. DNS Grade:1 User Responses:b. SMTP Feedback:a. SMTP uses port 25.66. Which of the following statements is true regarding WP A and WPA2? (Choose all that apply. ) a. WPA uses 256-bit encryption. b. WPA2 uses 128-bit encryption. c. WPA uses TKIP. d. WPA2 uses AES. Grade:2 User Responses:c. WPA uses TKIP. ,d. WPA2 uses AES. Feedback:a. WPA uses TKIP 128-bit encryption, whereas WPA2 uses 256-bit AES. /b. WPA uses TKIP 128-bit encryption, whereas WPA2 uses 256-bit AES.67. Which statement is NOT true with regard to WPA2? a. Uses AES encryption b. Meets requirements of 802. 11i c. Uses TKIP encryption d. Uses 256 bit encryption Grade:1 User Responses:c. Uses TKIP encryption Feedback:a. WPA uses TKIP but WPA2 uses AES.68. Which of the following is the security provided in the original 802. 11 standard? a. WPA b. WPA2 c. WEP d. CCMP Grade:1 User Responses:c. WEP Feedback:a. Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) is the security provided in the original 802. 11 standard.69. What is the authentication system that calls for a supplicant, authenticator, and authentication server called? . EAP b. WPA c. WPA2 d. WEP Grade:1 Us er Responses:a. EAP Feedback:a. Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) is an authentication system that calls for a supplicant, authenticator, and authentication server.70. Which of the following implementations of EAP requires certificates on the client and the server? a. EAP-FAST b. EAP-TTLS c. PEAP d. EAP-TLS Grade:1 User Responses:d. EAP-TLS Feedback:a. EAP-TLS requires certificates on the client and the server.71. Which of the following versions of EAP is Cisco proprietary? a. LEAP b. EAP-TTLS c. PEAP d. EAP-TLS Grade:1 User Responses:a. LEAP Feedback:a. Lightweight EAP is a version that works only on Cisco devices unless the device is from a partner that participates in the Cisco Compatible Extensions program.72. Why are MAC filters not effective in preventing access to the WLAN? a. The MAC addresses of allowed devices are contained in the beacon frames sent by the AP. b. The MAC addresses of allowed devices are contained in any frames sent by the allowed device. c. The admi nistrative effort to maintain the MAC list is prohibitive. d. If the user changes his MAC address, the filter will disallow entry. Grade:1 User Responses:b.The MAC addresses of allowed devices are contained in any frames sent by the allowed device. Feedback:a. The MAC addresses of allowed devices are contained in any frames sent by the allowed device and can be seen by those using wireless protocol analyzers. The MAC address can then be spoofed for entry.73. Which of the following frame types contain the SSID? (Choose all that apply. ) a. Beacon frames b. Data frames c. Association frames d. Authentication frames Grade:3 User Responses:b. Data frames,c. Association frames,d. Authentication frames Feedback:a. The SSID is contained in all frames.If the SSID is hidden, it is removed only from the beacon frames. /b. The SSID is contained in all frames. If the SSID is hidden, it is removed only from the beacon frames. /c. The SSID is contained in all frames. If the SSID is hidden, it is removed only from the beacon frames.74. TKIP was designed to correct the shortcomings of which of the following? a. EAP b. WPA c. WEP d. WPA2 Grade:1 User Responses:c. WEP Feedback:a. TKIP was designed to correct the shortcomings of WEP. It was a temporary solution for use until the 802. 1x standard was completed.75. Which of the following encryption protocols is used with WPA2? . TKIP b. CCMP c. WEP d. DES Grade:1 User Responses:b. CCMP Feedback:a. Counter Mode with Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol (CCMP) is the encryption protocol used with WPA2. It addresses the vulnerabilities of TKIP and meets requirements of IEEE 802. 11i.76. Which antenna types would be best for shaping the signal away from the front of the building for security purposes while still providing coverage in the other part of the building? (Choose all that apply. ) a. Yagi b. Omni c. Parabolic dish d. Semidirectional Grade:2 User Responses:a. Yagi,d. Semidirectional Feedback:a.You can us e a yagi antenna, which is a type of semidirectional antenna, to shape the coverage area as called for in the scenario. /b. You can use a yagi antenna, which is a type of semidirectional antenna, to shape the coverage area as called for in the scenario.77. How can you keep the existing radiation pattern of the antenna while reducing the coverage area? a. Increase the power of the transmitter. b. Decrease the power of the transmitter. c. Change the polarity of the antenna. d. Remove one of the attenuators from the line. Grade:1 User Responses:b. Decrease the power of the transmitter.Feedback:a. Reducing the power level maintains the radiation pattern while making the area of radiation smaller.78. What organization created WPA? a. FCC b. Wi-Fi Alliance c. IEEE d. ISO Grade:1 User Responses:b. Wi-Fi Alliance Feedback:a. The Wi-Fi Alliance created WPA to address the weaknesses of WEP.79. To which standard is WPA2 designed to adhere? a. 802. 16 b. 802. 11f c. 802. 11i d. 802. 11e Grade:1 User Responses:c. 802. 11i Feedback:a. WPA2 is designed to adhere to the 802. 11i security standard.80. Which of the following is the weakest form of security? a. TKIP b. WPA c. WEP d. EAP Grade:1User Responses:c. WEP Feedback:a. WEP is the weakest form of security. It has been cracked and is not suitable for Enterprise WLANs.81. A ______________ attack intercepts all data between a client and a server. a. DDoS b. Man-in-the-middle c. Replay d. Smurf Grade:1 User Responses:b. Man-in-the-middle Feedback:a. Man-in-the-middle is a type of active interception. 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A smurf attack sends large amounts of ICMP echoes, broadcasting the ICMP echo requests to every computer on its network or subnetwork. The ICMP request is sent to a broadcast address. When all hosts receive the ICMP broadcast request, these host send ICMP replies to the source address, which has been set to the address of the target.85. Changing your MAC address to that of another host is called ___________________. a. spear phishing b. spoofing c. pharming d. vishing Grade:1 User Responses:b . spoofing Feedback:a.Spoofing is when an attacker tails the IP or MAC address of another computer.86. Which of the following is more an aggravation than an attack? a. Spear phishing b. Spoofing c. Spam d. Vishing Grade:1 User Responses:c. Spam Feedback:a. Spam or unwanted email is more an aggravation than an attack.87. Which of the following uses instant messaging as its vehicle? a. Spim b. Spoofing c. Phishing d. Vishing Grade:1 User Responses:a. Spim Feedback:a. Spam Over Instant Messaging (SPIM) uses IM to deliver the spam.88. When VoIP phone calls are used in the pursuit of social engineering, it is called__________. a. spim b. poofing c. phishing d. vishing Grade:1 User Responses:d. vishing Feedback:a. Vishing is phishing performed with VoIP calls, which are harder to trace than regular calls.89. What type of attack is an advanced scan that tries to get around firewalls and look for open ports? a. DDoS b. Man-in-the-middle c. Xmas attack d. Smurf Grade:1 User Responses:c. Xmas attack Feedback:a. Usually using Nmap, the Xmas attack is an advanced scan that tries to get around firewalls and look for open ports.90. __________________ is when an attacker redirects one website’s traffic to another bogus and possibly malicious website. a.DDoS b. Pharming c. Xmas attack d. Smurf Grade:1 User Responses:b. Pharming Feedback:a. Host files and vulnerable DNS software can also be victims of pharming attacks. Pharming is when an attacker redirects one website’s traffic to another bogus and possibly malicious website. Pharming can be prevented by carefully monitoring DNS configurations and host files.91. ___________ is when a person that is not normally authorized to a server manages to get administrative permissions to resources. a. Whaling b. Pharming c. Spear phishing d. Privilege escalation Grade:1 User Responses:d. Privilege escalation Feedback:a.Privilege escalation is when a person that is not normally authorized to a server manages to get adminis trative permissions to resources.92. Which problem is the most difficult to contend with? a. Malicious insider threat b. Fraggle attack c. Distributed denial-of-service d. Whaling Grade:1 User Responses:a. Malicious insider threat Feedback:a. Because the attacker already is inside the network with company knowledge, a malicious insider threat is the most difficult to contend with.93. What type of attack can DNS poisoning lead to? a. Whaling b. Pharming c. Spear phishing d. Privilege escalation Grade:0User Responses:c. Spear phishing Feedback:a. Pharming attacks lead users from a legitimate website to a malicious twin. The easiest way to do this is to poison the DNS cache so that the DNS server sends them to the malicious site.94. Strong input validation can help prevent ____________________. a. bluesnarfing b. SQL injection c. session highjacking d. header manipulation Grade:0 User Responses:c. session highjacking Feedback:a. SQL injection attacks user input in web forms that is not correctly filtered. This can be prevented with input validations.95. LDAP injection is an attack on __________________servers. . SQL b. directory c. web d. email Grade:1 User Responses:b. directory Feedback:a. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol is a protocol used to maintain a directory of information such as user accounts or other types of objects.96. XML injection can be prevented with __________________. a. IDS b. IPS c. input validation d. complex passwords Grade:0 User Responses:d. complex passwords Feedback:a. The best way to protect against this (and all code injection techniques for that matter) is to incorporate strong input validation.97. The .. / attack is also known as ________________. a. irectory traversal b. SQL injection c. session highjacking d. header manipulation Grade:1 User Responses:a. directory traversal Feedback:a. Directory traversal, or the .. / (dot dot slash) attack is a method to access unauthorized parent (or worse, root) directories.98. ___________ __ is when commands and command syntax are entered into an application or OS. a. Directory traversal b. Command injection c. Command highjacking d. Code manipulation Grade:1 User Responses:b. Command injection Feedback:a. Command injection is when commands and command syntax are entered into an application or OS.99. Buffer overflows operate against the _________ of the computer. a. NIC b. disk c. CPU d. memory Grade:1 User Responses:d. memory Feedback:a. A buffer overflow is when a process stores data outside of the memory that the developer intended.100. What is the difference between an XSS and XSRF attack? a. The XSS attack exploits the trust a user’s browser has in a website, whereas the XSFR attack exploits the trust that a website has in a user’s browser. b. The XSFR attack exploits the trust a user’s browser has in a website, whereas the XSS attack exploits the trust that a website has in a user’s browser. . The XSS attack creates a buffer overflow on the website, whereas the XSFR attack creates a buffer overflow on the client. d. The XSS attack creates a buffer overflow on the client, whereas the XSFR attack creates a buffer overflow on the website. Grade:1 User Responses:a. The XSS attack exploits the trust a user’s browser has in a website, whereas the XSFR attack exploits the trust that a website has in a user’s browser. Feedback:a. The XSS attack exploits the trust a user’s browser has in a website. The converse of this: the XSRF attack exploits the trust that a website has in a user’s browser. In this attack (also known as a one-click attack), the user’s browser is compromised and transmits unauthorized commands to the website.101. _______________ are placed by programmers, knowingly or inadvertently, to bypass normal authentication and other security mechanisms in place. a. Landing spots b. Backdoors c. Hotspots d. Code heels Grade:1 User Responses:b. Backdoors Feedback:a. Backdoors a re placed by programmers, knowingly or inadvertently, to bypass normal authentication and other security mechanisms in place.102. An XSS attack is also called a(n) __________________ attack. a. Zero day b. Command injection . Xmas d. Cross site scripting Grade:1 User Responses:d. Cross site scripting Feedback:a. XSS attacks, also called cross site scripting attacks, exploit the trust a user’s browser has in a website through code injection, often in webforms.103. ______________can be used by spyware and can track people without their permission. a. MAC addresses b. Cookies c. IP addresses d. Attachments Grade:1 User Responses:b. Cookies Feedback:a. Cookies are text files placed on the client computer that store information about it, which could include your computer’s browsing habits and possibly user credentials.104. Which of the following attachments is the riskiest to open? a.. exe b.. pdf c.. doc d.. txt Grade:1 User Responses:a.. exe Feedback:a. A . exe or executa ble file is one that contains a program that will do something, perhaps malicious to the computer.105. Stolen cookies can be used to launch a(n) ____________________. a. XSS attack b. SQL injection c. session highjack d. header manipulation Grade:1 User Responses:c. session highjack Feedback:a. Session cookies authenticate you to a server and can be used to highjack your session.106. Header manipulation alters information in ______________ headers. a. LDAP b. file c. HTTP . SQL Grade:1 User Responses:c. HTTP Feedback:a. Header manipulation alters information in HTTP headers and falsifies access.107. An ActiveX control is an example of a(n) _________________. a. cookie b. add-on c. cipher d. virus Grade:1 User Responses:b. add-on Feedback:a. You can enable and disable add-on programs such as ActiveX controls in the Programs tab by clicking the Manage add-ons button in Internet Explorer.108. When an attack targets an operating system vulnerability that is still unknown to the world in general, it is called a __________. a. P2P attack b. zero day attack c. whaling attack d. DDoS attack Grade:1User Responses:b. zero day attack Feedback:a. A zero day attack targets an operating system vulnerability that is still unknown to the world in general.109. __________________is a concept that refers to the monitoring of data in use, data in motion, and data at rest. a. DLP b. DHCP c. DEP d. DMS Grade:1 User Responses:a. DLP Feedback:a. Data Loss Prevention (DLP) is a concept that refers to the monitoring of data in use, data in motion, and data at rest. It does this through content inspection and is designed to prevent unauthorized use of data as well as prevent the leakage of data outside the computer (or network) that it resides.110. Which form of DLP is typically installed in data centers or server rooms? a. Endpoint DLP b. Network DLP c. Storage DLP d. Comprehensive DLP Grade:1 User Responses:c. Storage DLP Feedback:a. Storage DLP systems are typically installed in data centers or server rooms as software that inspect data at rest.111. Which of the following is an example of drive encryption? a. AppLocker b. BitLocker c. Windows defender d. Trusted Platform Module Grade:1 User Responses:b. BitLocker Feedback:a. To encrypt an entire hard disk, you need some kind of full disk encryption software.Several are currently available on the market; one developed by Microsoft is called BitLocker.112. The beauty of hardware-based encryption devices such as HSM (and TPM) is that it is ____________ than software encryption. a. more difficult to crack b. easier to use than software encryption c. faster than software encryption d. can be used to calculate data other than encryption keys Grade:1 User Responses:c. faster than software encryption Feedback:a. Hardware security modules (HSMs) are physical devices that act as secure cryptoprocessors.This means that they are used for encryption during secure login/authentication processes, during digital signings of da ta, and for payment security systems. The beauty of hardware-based encryption devices such as HSM (and TPM) is that it is faster than software encryption.113. A _________________ is a chip residing on the motherboard that actually stores the encrypted keys. a. DLP b. DHCP c. DEP d. TPM Grade:1 User Responses:d. TPM Feedback:a. A Trusted Platform Module (TPM) chip is one residing on the motherboard that actually stores the encrypted keys.114. Which of the following is NOT required to encrypt the entire disk in Windows?Choose all that apply. a. TPM chip or USB key b. A hard drive with two volumes c. HSM Module d. Cryptoprocessor Grade:2 User Responses:c. HSM Module,d. Cryptoprocessor Feedback:a. Hardware security modules (HSMs) are physical devices that act as secure cryptoprocessors; however, they are NOT a part of encrypting the entire disk in Windows. /b. Hardware security modules (HSMs) are physical devices that act as secure cryptoprocessors; however, they are NOT a part of encry pting the entire disk in Windows.115. Probably the most important security concern with cloud computing is _______________. . less secure connections b. loss of physical control of data c. weak authentication d. bug exploitation Grade:1 User Responses:b. loss of physical control of data Feedback:a. Probably the most important security control concern is the physical control of data that is lost when an organization makes use of cloud computing.116. Which of the following is NOT a solution to security issues surrounding cloud computing? a. Complex passwords b. Strong authentication methods c. Standardization of programming d. Multiple firewalls Grade:1 User Responses:d. Multiple firewalls Feedback:a. Solutions to these security issues include complex passwords, strong authentication methods, encryption, and standardization of programming.117. Which form of DLP is typically installed on individual computers? a. Endpoint DLP b. Network DLP c. Storage DLP d. Comprehensive DLP Grade:1 Us er Responses:a. 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A drive encrypted with BitLocker usually suffers in perfo rmance compared to a nonencrypted drive and could have a shorter shelf life as well.120. Which form of DLP is typically installed on the perimeter of the network? a. Endpoint DLP b. Network DLP c. Storage DLP d. Comprehensive DLP Grade:1 User Responses:b. Network DLP Feedback:a. Network DLP systems can be software or hardware solutions that are often installed on the perimeter of the network. They inspect data that is in motion.121. Software as a service (SaaS) is a type of _____________ computing. a. HSM b. cloud c. role-based d. TPM Grade:1 User Responses:b. cloudFeedback:a. Software as a Service (SaaS) is the most commonly used and recognized example of cloud computing. SaaS is when users access applications over the Internet that are provided by a third party.122. Which form of DLP inspects ONLY data in motion? a. Endpoint DLP b. Network DLP c. Storage DLP d. Comprehensive DLP Grade:1 User Responses:b. 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Logging is also important when it comes to a firewall. Firewall logs should be the first th ing you check when an intrusion has been detected. You should know how to access the logs and how to read them.126. Which log on a Windows server is where you could learn if Joe logged in today? a. Applications b. System c. Security d. DNS Grade:1 User Responses:c. Security Feedback:a. The security log contains entries about logins and access to resources both successful and unsuccessful.127. Which of the following is NOT an example of physical security? a. Mantraps b.Security logs c. Video surveillance d. Hardware locks Grade:1 User Responses:b. Security logs Feedback:a. Security logs track activities on the network which is logical not physical security.128. Which of the following is NOT a type of door lock? a. Cipher b. Keyed c. Cardkey d. Mantrap Grade:1 User Responses:d. Mantrap Feedback:a. A mantrap is a two door system designed to prevent tailgating.129. 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These attack patterns are known as signatures.132. A(n) __________________ uses baseline reporting and other analyses to discover vulnerabilities and weaknesses in s ystems. a. NAT b. SPA c. SLA d. PSK Grade:1 User Responses:b. SPA Feedback:a. The security posture can be defined as the risk level to which a system, or other technology element, is exposed. Security Posture Assessments (SPA) use baseline reporting and other analyses to discover vulnerabilities and weaknesses in systems.133. Which of the following indicate a problem currently occurring? . Trends b. Baselines c. Alarms d. Averts Grade:1 User Responses:c. Alarms Feedback:a. Although alerts indicate an issue that MAY need attention, alarms indicate a problem currently occurring.134. Which of the following are detection controls? (Choose all that apply. ) a. IDS b. IPS c. Video cameras d. Security guard Grade:2 User Responses:a. IDS,c. Video cameras Feedback:a. Detection controls, such as Intrusion Detection systems and video cameras record only activity; they do not prevent it. /b. Detection controls, such as Intrusion Detection systems and video cameras record only activity; they do not prevent it.135. Which of the following is designed to prevent tailgating? a. Mantraps b. Security logs c. Video surveillance d. Hardware locks Grade:1 User Responses:a. Mantraps Feedback:a. Mantraps use double doors to prevent tailgating.136. Which of the following is a proximity reader? a. a security card that transmits the location of the holder b. a device that tracks how close an individual is c. a security card reader that can read the card from a distance d. a card reader that locks the door when the holder is a certain distance from the door Grade:1 User Responses:c. security card reader that can read the card from a distance Feedback:a. These cards use radio waves to transmit to the reader.137. By frequently updating systems and by employing other methods such as group policies and baselining, you _____________ the systems. a. brace b. harden c. virtualize d. hardline Grade:1 User Responses:b. harden Feedback:a. By frequently updating systems and by employing other metho ds such as group policies and baselining, you harden the system.138. Installing service packs is a part of the ___________ process. a. baselining b. hardening c. scaling . security templating Grade:1 User Responses:b. hardening Feedback:a. Hardening the OS is accomplished through the use of service packs, patch management, hotfixes, group policies, security templates, and configuration baselines.139. ______________ can be described as unauthorized WAPs that inadvertently enable access to secure networks. a. Rogue access points b. Evil twin c. War driver d. Phisher Grade:1 User Responses:a. Rogue access points Feedback:a. Rogue access points can be described as unauthorized wireless access points/routers that enable access to secure networks.They differ from an Evil twin in that an Evil twin is strategically placed for the purpose of accessing the network or performing a high jacking attack, whereas rogue access points generally may be placed by employees for their convenience.140. W hich wireless attacks include the introduction of radio interference? a. Rogue Access Point b. Evil twin c. War driver d. Bluesnarfing Grade:1 User Responses:b. Evil twin Feedback:a. The evil twin attack includes jamming the network to cause the stations to associate with the evil twin AP.141. When executing the Evil twin attack, what value must match on the Evil twin and the legitimate AP? . IP address b. SSID c. MAC address d. Admin password Grade:1 User Responses:b. SSID Feedback:a. The Evil twin attack includes jamming the network to cause the stations to associate with the Evil twin AP. 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Toxicology - Case Study Example These are antibiotics, miticides and neonicotinoid pesticides. This paper analyzes these three classes of chemicals. Neonicotinoids, commonly referred to as neonics, are a rather new variety of pesticides, having been manufactured and marketed for the last twenty or so years. Neonics are systemic pesticides(Hopwood, Vaughan and Shepherd 3). Contrary to contact pesticides that remain on the surface of the plant, systemics are absorbed by the plant and moved to all the tissues of the plant. Neonics can be sprayed at the root of a plant or sprayed onto its foliage. Once applied, neonics remain active for many weeks, protecting the plant throughout the season. Several neonics are sold for application to lawns, pot plants and crops raised in a greenhouse. A miticide, also known as acaricide, is any chemical substance used to control ticks and mites that are not affected by regular pesticides. Miticides are specifically designed to destroy those species of ticks and mites that damage food crops and ornamental plants(Burley 5). Some of the most commonly used miticides include tetradifon, azobenzene and dicofol. Most miticides are designed to kill the eggs and larvae of pests, but some also kill adult pests. Some miticides are known to be poisonous to honeybees and other useful insects. Despite knowledge of this adverse effect of miticides on honeybees, these substances continue to be manufactured and applied to crops widely in the country. An antibiotic is defined as a molecule or an agent that either kills or interferes with the growth of a living thing that is too tiny for the naked eye, also called a microorganism(Hawthorne and Dively 26). These microorganisms include both fungi and bacteria. Selman Waksman first coined the term in 1942 in their journal articles. They used the term to describe any substance that a microorganism produces and inhibits the growth of other microorganisms. "Bactericidal" antibiotics kill bacteria

India Census Assignment Example | Topics and Well Written Essays - 250 words

India Census - Assignment Example Sahni (2011) stated that government is said to have been campaigning against abortion and sex selection but is still ineffective because of the diminishing number of girls. Some of the reasons of India’s skewed sex ratio include female feticide, pre-sex selection methods such as ultrasound machines, attitudes towards female children and traditional practices of the country (Sahni 2011). According to Ravi Verma, a director of the Asia office of International Center for Research in Women, Indian society is the major reason of the sex preference of the citizens. Even the improvement on wealth, education and technology are to be blamed why this problem in India is still not resolved. Verma even emphasized that the attitude of the society towards sons and daughters is the key to help improve this phenomenon. It is very unhappy to know that this kind of problem on sex discrimination is very widespread in India. This discrimination came to a point of pre-sex selection and female feticide. The government must therefore take more serious actions to help the diminishing number of female children in the country. The government has the power to do this. Thus female Indians’ future depends on the hands of the government and the society itself. Sahni, D. (2011). India Census Reflects a Grim Reality for Girls. India RealTime: The Wall Street Journal. Retrieved from

Tax Research Paper Example | Topics and Well Written Essays - 500 words - 1

Tax - Research Paper Example Inherently, the Democratic Party openly endorses a tax system that will see the wealthiest, together with corporations pay their fair share of tax. Moreover, they are calling for decisive steps to be made in order to restore fiscal responsibility. Actually, Obama proposes that tax for people earning over $250,000 annually be raised. Essentially, this will affect about 1% of the country’s population, and moreover, this is expected to reduce the deficit with about $ 4.2 trillion in the next decade. In addition, democratic platform follows the framework for corporate tax reform that was introduced by the president (Kapur 5). Actually, the reform advocates for use of closure of corporate tax holes so as to pay for lower tax rates. Notably also, the platform also seeks to undo corporate tax credits together with deductions for the businesses that mainly shift jobs overseas and in the same time lower the rates for the corporations that have invested in the country, especially in res earch and manufacturing. On the other hand, Gleckman, purports that the 2012 republican platform proposes an absolute overhaul of the federal tax system and instead, it calls for a national sales tax or value added tax as the best solution to the country’s budget problems (4). Further, the republicans claim that the move will involve instituting a value added tax, which entails a tax that will confiscate money at different stages of production process. More importantly, Romney also plans to cut taxes by 20 percent, for all as well as do away with alternative minimum tax together with estate tax as well. In addition, his tax plans also speaks of eliminating taxes on investment income for the couples earning an income of below $200,000 (and $100,000 for individuals), as well as maintain the current low tax rates for those with high incomes. The US federal income tax structures base on models of aggregation in expenditure. Application of the Euler equation approach of Hall (978),

On-Site Executive MBA Program Assignment Example | Topics and Well Written Essays - 1750 words

On-Site Executive MBA Program - Assignment Example On-Site Executive MBA Program A growing number of business proficient’s prefer to get their MBAs over the internet. Getting an MBA degree is a big achievement for many students. Countless undergraduates after graduating progress to get their Masters Degree in their most wanted field. This marketing plan points up the market fragments and the line of attack of employing to get consumers and generate a compact income stream. Our exclusive emphasis is giving out chances for the round-the-clock working undergraduate that is unable to go to a university grounds for courses. A twist that gives us a benefit over our opponents is of giving pupils more preferences of what is accessible in selection from a more range of majors. From experience, many virtual universities have a very rudimentary collection of MBA degree majors. In the present day business biosphere, the importance and standing of clienteles is not something that would be put to one side by businesses. In defining a target market you need to decide if your item for consumption is worldwide or countrywide in choice? Or is it more prospective that you will vend it principally in your own district or public? In the circumstance of an online MBA Program, the key market is essentially nationwide and worldwide. Pupils want to go to the United States from all around the world to go to a USA school. In addition, there is a marketplace for students in the States that wish to go to school overseas. The secondary market is native people who have kinfolks and are too busy to join a campus and go to lecture.(Advantage and Disadvantage of Distance Learning, 2011) Likewise, we would be targeting the middle class i.e. students who cannot afford to pay huge amounts of fees to get a degree. An online Program

Coke vs Pepsi Essay Example for Free

Coke vs Pepsi Essay Pepsi has historically targeted a young audience especially since the 1980s .Many of their ads were usually aimed at teenagers and even younger groups by introducing fun, sports and music in their ads and this still hasnt changed in 2014.Pepsi has consistently found new ways to adapt to each generation and found great success through it. But most of the credit comes from their segmentation methods. Pepsi has a Behavioral segmentation that contains customers usage. They range customers usage from light to occasional drinkers. They also look at customers purchase behaviors trying label them as instinctive or planned buyers. A good example of a planned buyer and a purchase occasional buyer would be somebody having a get together or a party where the customer chooses to buy Pepsi products to quench their thirst after a exciting fun time. Pepsi also has a Psychological segmentation that focus on a lifestyle and personality. Pepsi has created a motto for themselves called Live Now, but they say that its not just a motto but a mindset. So you already know that they had to have a segment of people that share their same belief. These customers are usually fun sophisticated people or cool teenagers. Pepsis final segmentation is Geo-demographic which mostly focuses on the urban areas around the world .which make a lot of sense because most people believe that the cities is where the most fun and big event occur at. As well as finding this particular demographic ages 18- 25 ,which are considered to be young cool sophisticated people that just want to live now. Coca Cola Company is the worlds largest beverage company, refreshing consumers with more than 500 sparkling and still brands.But for some reason Coca Cola doesn’t have a specific target segment but adapt its marketing strategy by developing new products, which really means their segmentation are really broad. Generally, Coke does not have a specific target because they are really trying to addressed everyone. Coca Cola also doesn’t try to target a lifestyles, but they are seeing more and more busy lifestyle and mobile generation that are considered to be the most important part of Coke’s consumers. Coca cola also doesn’t care about a customers occupation but found out that mainly students and family oriented people buy Coca Cola products. Coca Cola also sees that their main consumers are 12-30 years old people and even though there is no specific product or communication for less than 12 or more than 30, the brand succeed in reaching them, through partnerships from six flags,restaurants, fast foods such as McDonald’s or Loyalty from customers. Finally, Coca Cola consider each customer as a target and a potential consumer. All age groups are being targeted but the most potential is the age group from 18-25 that covers a good amount of the age segments. How do their segmentation strategies differ? Their segmentation strategies differ in a big way because Pepsi used the segmentation method to target their customers ,but Coca Cola didn’t really structure a segmentation method to target their customers with .They mostly used the positioning method to grow their company. Pepsi focus on customers that wanted to live now ,a more exciting life. While Coca Cola just wanted everybody to enjoy a Coca Cola product, living your life even if its boring or exciting they didnt care, as long as you had a coke in your hand.

Independence for women Essay Example for Free

Independence for women Essay Independence of women Speaking of womens independence, people will think of the image that women determined to fght with men in workplace. This is widely recognized in our life. In fact, the independence not only mean argue with men in the career, its about women find their own position or not. So independence is a self-understanding because it may decide you can get more personal benefit from the economic, ideological or social, and it will make you have a good attitude and new values. Women should be economically independent, and then they have qualified to talk about respect or quality. In order to make a living, unmarried women cant put hopes on marry the rich men. Many girls who always rely on rich men, over time, those men may feel tired. Because of economic problems, the girls boyfriend will have contradiction with you. If there are more and more conflicts, your feeling will fade. Moreover, Women should keep their own Job or still have economic source when they married. In chocolate movie, Josephine because of her identity has problem. She had to rely on her husband. His husband thought her life was saved by him. So he hit and humiliated her all the time. She cant get respect or equality in her family. Ideology determines womens behavior, so only being able to form their own opinions, it will make you behavior gets more approval from others. Womens behavior is their expression of ideology. People often said, wonderful thinking, wonderful life. In chocolate movie, the heroine has her own opinions. She always did everything according to her ideas. Finally she got more attention and help people change old opinions. Besides, Ideology affects womens relationships with others. Even some men like give women suggestions or ideas. If women have different mind to share with them, they may be amazed at womens thinking, and also will praise women. Social independent make women adapt to social development and change, and it leads you have more improve. Women easy to lost goal or mind in the constantly changing society. Women cant expect someone can give you ideas. In the namesake movie, the heroines husband always stays with her, and helps her figure out problems. When she lost her husband, she didnt know how to continue the rest of live. Social independence can attract more attention from others. In chocolate ovie, because of the leading lady was good at independent living, it makes people pay attention to her. Finally, they found, it leads their life to good direction. Therefore, it won more respect and love for her. All in all, women independence doesnt mean completely dependent on others, it is womens self-understanding because it can get more benefit, and it will get more love and attention from other people. So, economic, ideological or social independent is necessary for women. At the same time, I hope every woman have ability to independently, and they can play more and more important role in social life, including myself.

Crystalline Modifications and Solubility of Prepared Crystal

Crystalline Modifications and Solubility of Prepared Crystal LITERATURE REVIEW Tejal Prajapati et.al., (2010) Investigated different crystal forms of carbamazepine was prepared from various solvents. Crystalline modifications and the solubility of prepared crystals and immediate release tablet dissolution rate profile of carbamazepine studied by using in vitro dissolution studies. These obtained crystal forms of carbamazepine and pure drug was characterized by SEM, FTIR, PXRD and DSC. Highest solubility profile shown by Crystals obtained from ethanol at room temperature and it gave better in vitro dissolution drug release profile than all other forms. Nokhodchi et.al., (2010) Developed ibuprofen crystal forms by using solvent change crystallization technique. Ibuprofen was dissolved in ethanol, and then that solution was crystallized with water in the presence or absence of different types of hydrophilic additives or polymers (like PEG 6000, 8000, Brij 98P and PVA 22000) and using with different concentration ratios. Physico-mechanical properties of Ibuprofen crystals were studied by density, flow property, tensile strength and dissolution behaviour and characterized by SEM, DSC and FT-IR. Ibuprofen crystals crystallized with presence of PEG 6000, 8000 and PVA shown reliable increase in the tensile strengths results of the directly compressed tablets. Talluri chandrashekar et.al., (2010) Developed four different types of Chlorzoxazone polymorphs (Form I, Form II, Form III and Form IV) by using different types of solvents. The obtained polymorphs were characterized by using Optical Microscopy, DSC, XRD and IR spectroscopic methods. From the studies it was revealed that the Form I, Form II shown higher solubility rate profile than Form III, Form IV and pure drug. Rajesh A. Keraliya et.al., (2010) Investigated 14 pure good solvents were selected for the crystallization of tolbutamide. Crystals were obtained in only 10 solvents out of the all 14 solvents. These developed Crystal forms were characterized by using differential scanning calorimetry, optical microscopy, and in vitro dissolution study. Differential scanning calorimetry study shown all types of crystals were determined as isomorphic. Crystal forms of tolbutamide gave different dissolution rates. Cheng-Hung Hsu et.al., (2010) Studied transformation of different gabapentin polymorphs forms. Four types of gabapentin polymorphs were developed and these are characterized by using DSC, TGA, FTIR Microspectroscopy and X-ray powder diffractometry. A one-step novel hot-stage FTIR microspectroscopy was successfully applied to progressive processes of polymorphic forms transformation of prepared crystals. Gen Hasegawa et.al., (2009) Prepared different types of tolbutamide polymorphs and thermodynamic stability was characterized by using calorimetry and spectroscopic analysis. Forms I-III The heat of solutions (à ¢Ã‹â€ Ã¢â‚¬  H) measurements were observed in solvent of dimethylsulfoxide between 298.2K and 319.2 K. Solubility data also observed and then confirmed the change in à ¢Ã‹â€ Ã¢â‚¬  H of Form I around 308.2 K. XRD, DSC measurements of Form I characterized as a polymorphic transformation was observed at 311K. The crystal forms structure of the Form I was determined by using PXRD pattern, and solid-state NMR spectrum confirmed the transformations occurred in the prepared crystal form structure of tolbutamide Form I. Roya Talari et.al., (2009) Investigated Gliclazide was recrystallized and developed polymorphs with 12 different types stabilizers and each stabilizer gives effect on micromeritic behaviors, microcrystals morphology, dissolution rate profile and recrystallized gliclazide solid state were studied. Recrystallized samples showed faster dissolution rate than gliclazide pure drug and the fastest dissolution rate profile was observed the samples recrystallized with PEG 1500 stabilizer. XRPD and DSC results confirmed that crystallization of gliclazide forms with stabilizers reduced the crystallinity of the samples. Renu Chadha et.al., (2009) Prepared five different crystal forms of methotrexate and Characterized by using XRPD and DSC. Desolvation endotherm was determined by the DSC. In I, II, IV and V crystal forms mass losses were observed in TGA and shown these forms are acetonitrile solvate hydrate, dimethylformamide solvate and trihydrate (I, V, II and IV) respectively. Desolvation peak was not observed in Prepared from methanol crystal form (form III) and that indicates the absence of solvent of crystallization. This form III was shown partially crystalline pattern by its XRPD. All prepared forms the dissolution and solubility rate profiles were correlated with enthalpy of solution and subsequently to the crystallinity of all four forms of methotrexate; and crystal form III shown highest dissolution rate than other prepared forms. Mange Ram Yadav et.al., (2008) Developed five different types of crystal forms of Pefloxacin by using with different solvents of varying polarities, and the dissolution kinetics of five polymorphs was observed. That reveled these polymorphs differed in their dissolution rate profiles and all polymorphs shown unusual behavior in highest dissolution rate profile at the end of 15 min after that some what similar dissolution rate. Finally got constant dissolution release values after 4 hrs. Shan-Yang Lin et.al., (2007) Investigated two polymorphic forms A B of famotidine. It describes famotidine polymorphic transition may produce by the grinding or compression process in ground mixtures or compressed compacts in tabletting process time. The synergistic effect of temperature on the grinding or compression process was also investigated. In the ground mixtures, famotidine polymorphic transition was characterized by confocal Raman Microspectroscopy, DSC. Mechanical forces, which are grinding and compression, are having effect on polymorphic transformation of Famotidine. Ilma Nugrahani et.al., (2007) Evaluated amoxicillin trihydrate and potassium solid state interaction. The solid state interaction was characterized by using DSC, XRPD, FTIR and SEM. Different compositions of amoxicillin trihydrate and potassium clavulanate were developed in ten different molar ratios and characterized by DSC to get the thermal profile and a phase diagram of composition. Binary systems thermo profile obtained by DSC analysis that endothermic curves of molar ratios of 1:9-5:5 overlapped at 201 °C. the molar fraction ratio of 5:5 shown the loss of hydrate spectra in amoxicillin trihydrate characterized by FTIR spectrum of binary system. We conclude co-crystal system produced by the strong hydrogen bonding interaction between hydrates of amoxicillin and potassium clavulanate. Cristina Puigjaner et.al., (2007) Investigated new polymorphic forms A, B C of Norfloxacin. These polymorphs forms were characterized by different methods like powder X-ray diffraction, Vibrational spectroscopy (IR and Raman), thermal analysis (DSC and TG), SEM and solid-state NMR spectroscopy. The data show an enantiotropic relationship between A C forms, as well as a monotropic relationship between B C. C.G. Kontoyannis et.al., (2007) Reported Risperidone polymorphic forms of film coated commercial tablets and characterized by using IR spectroscopy, Raman spectroscopy and X-ray powder diffraction. This Risperidone polymorph stability was examined through time and during the manufacturing process. The inability of IR and Raman techniques to identify the presence of polymorph A in the tablets. Form A was proved to be stable during the manufacturing process time and after the storage period of 2 years. Wang Jingkang et.al., (2007) Reported crystal habit of 11ÃŽÂ ±-hydroxy-16ÃŽÂ ±, 17ÃŽÂ ±-epoxyprogesterone (HEP) grown from solution by the effects of solvent and impurity were characterized by using SEM. Long prismatic crystals were formed from crystallization of HEP in pure acetone and N, N-dimethylformamide. Blocky crystals were resulted with pure chloroform by using cooling crystallization method. These HEP crystals were greatly modified from prismatic to octahedral shape. That the change of crystal habit was brought from the modification of crystal structure by DSC and X-ray powder diffraction. Piera Di Martino et.al., (2007) Reported crystal forms of nimesulide prepared by crystallizing from an ethanol solution and dioxane, different from the pure drug nimesulide reference sample, it was characterized by using XRPD, DSC and solid cross polarization-magic angle spinning NMR. Dioxane nimesulide forms are solvate. The polymorphic form prepared by desolvation of dioxane solvate gave positive effect on nimesulide forms tableting properties increasing the both compressibility and tabletability. Joao Canotilho et.al., (2007) Prepared crystalline forms of atenolol from evaporation of an ethanol/water solution. (R, S)-Atenolol crystallizes in the centrosymmetric and S-atenolol crystallizes in a noncentrosymmetric space group C2/c and space group C2 respectively. One symmetry and two symmetry independent molecule in (R, S)-atenolol crystals and molecules in S-atenolol respectively. (R, S)-atenolol shown two different molecular conformations and three different conformations were isolated in S-atenolol.. The molecular conformations characterized by X-ray diffraction method were fully relaxed at the HF/6-31G* level of theory. Reddy et.al., (2005) Investigated a novel crystalline form of cetirizine monohydrochloride was prepared. These prepared crystalline forms of cetirizine monohydrochloride were characterized by using x-ray diffraction pattern, differential scanning calorimetry. Kati Pollanen et.al., (2005) Prepared polymorphic forms of sulfathiazole. These polymorphic forms composition of bulk product samples characterized by diffuse reflectance Fourier transform infrared spectroscopy together with multivariate statistical process control analysis, soft independent modeling of class analogy, orthogonal signal correction preprocessing and partial least squares regression methods. Ali Arslantas et.al., (2005) Investigated L-ascorbic acid polymorphs considered as eight space groups and assuming one molecule in the asymmetric unit. Including with the experimental structure and number of possible crystal structures were found. By removing space-group symmetry constraints, the number of hypothetical crystal structures was reduced. Schmidt et.al., (2005) Reported Benzocaine (BZC), butambene (BTN) and isobutambene (BTI) are ester type basic local anaesthetic agents. These are exist in two polymorphic crystal forms and characterized by thermomicroscopy, DSC, FTIR, FT-Raman-spectroscopy and XRPD. The endothermic transformation of mod. I0 at ambient conditions thermodynamically stable (heat of transition rule). Whereas mod. II and mod.I0 enantiotropic in nature and mod.II is metastable at temperatures. At room temperature the metastable forms show different kinetic stabilities. Vijayavitthal T Mathad et.al., (2005) Prepared six polymorphs of donepezil hydro bromide from different types of solvents, and these polymorphs physical properties are characterized by PXRD, DSC, TGA, IR spectroscopy and Karl Fischer techniques. It reveled one is crystalline hydrate , four are anhydrous polymorphs and one is amorphous form. Arvind k. Bansal et.al., (2004) Studied clopidogrel bisulphate polymorphic form I and form II. Obtained polymorphs were characterized by Thermal (DSC, TGA, HSM), crystallographic (XRD) and spectroscopic (FTIR) methods. Differences in their spectral patterns were successfully utilized for the quantification of forms I and II in powder mixtures. The forms undergo no transformations and exhibit no crystal defect generation when exposed to pressure during the KBr pellet formation. FTIR method was successfully characterized and validated for the quantification of prepared clopidogrel bisulphate polymorph form I in polymorph mixtures. David J. W. Grant et.al., (2004) Reported two polymorphic forms of s Piroxicam. The difference in energy of the two polymorphs, I and II, of Piroxicam arises predominantly from the difference between their lattice energies, rather than between their conformational energies. A loss of polymorphic memory was observed upon cryogrinding, the two polymorphs are leading to differences in their recrystallization behavior between Piroxicam amorphous prepared in polymorphs I and II.di Young-Taek Sohn and Hyun Ok Seo et.al., (2004) Developed four types of crystal forms of ketorolac by recrystallization from various organic solvents under variable conditions. Different types of ketorolac polymorphs and pseudopolymorphs were characterized by XRPD, DSC, and thermogravimetric analysis. All four crystal forms showed different types of dissolution studies in water at 37 ±0.5oC. Form I shown the highest solubility. Polymorphic forms of Form I and Form III shown good physical stability at room temperature for 60 days. After 60 days storage Form IV is converted to Form I and Form II is converted to Form III. Sari Airaksinen et.al., (2004) Investigated two polymorphic forms of theophylline monohydrate. Theophylline monohydrate transforms either stable (form I), or metastable (form Ià ¢Ã‹â€ -) form of anhydrous theophylline during the drying phase of wet granulation method. Amounts of the different theophylline crystalline forms remaining in the form of dried granules were characterized by using XRPD and near-infrared spectroscopy. It conclude the Metastable anhydrous theophylline was the major form that was produced at drying temperatures of 40-50 à ¢- ¦C with both MMFD and VT-XRPD drying techniques. Mahua Sarkar et.al., (2008) Developed nevirapine polymorphic forms from different types solvents under various conditions by crystallization. These forms solid-state behavior was characterized by using variety of complementary techniques such as microscopy (optical, polarized, hot stage microscopy), DSC, TGA, FT-IR and powder X-ray diffractometry. Nevirapine forms crystallized from varying polarities and yielded different crystal habits. The recrystallized sample intrinsic dissolution rate of was lower than the commercial sample. Nevirapine Amorphous form shown slightly higher aqueous solubility than commercial sample. Makoto Otsuka Fumie kato et.al., (2003) Investigated indomethacin polymorphic content in mixed pharmaceutical powder and tablets by using rapid chemometrical near-infrared spectroscopy. Polymorphic contents of forms ÃŽÂ ± and ÃŽÂ ³ were obtained from physical mixing of IMC standard polymorphic sample 50% and excipient mixed powder sample consisting of lactose, corn starch, and hydroxypropyl-cellulose 50% in Mixed powder samples. 6 kinds of standard materials with various polymorphic contents were characterized by using X-ray powder diffraction profiles and NIR spectra. more accurate quantitative analysis of polymorphic content provided by NIR spectroscopy in pharmaceutical mixed powder and tablets. Sabiruddin Mirza et.al., (2003) Developed crystal forms erythromycin with various organic solvents, (acetone, methylethylketone, ethanol, and isopropanol) both in the presence and in the absence of water on the crystallization. It was observed that pure organic solvent or water-organic 1:9 or 1:1 solvent mixtures are solvate. However, the recrystallization of erythromycin from 2:1 water-organic solvent mixture gives crystal hydrate form. that the loss of volatiles by all the solvated crystals is nonstoichiometric showed by Thermo-gravimetric analysis. The solvates with the organic solvents desolvation behavior of characterized by variable-temperature x-ray powder diffraction. R. Fausto et.al., (2003) an amorphous state produced by Fast cooling rates that, on more heating, that crystallizes into metastable polymorph. At higher temperatures, this metastable crystalline form converts into the stable crystal form. Cooling rates is intermediate produce 3AP crystallizes as the metastable polymorph, the solid l solid transition occurring on heating and this form into the stable polymorph. cooling rate is Slower enable formation of the stable crystal on cooling. The two crystalline polymorphs were characterized by using powder X-ray diffraction and Raman spectroscopy. It concluded that different types of conformations are assumed by the individual molecules of 3AP in two crystalline forms. Amy J. Harshaw et.al.,(2003) Examined four polymorphic crystalline forms sulfathiazole exist in solvents used n-propanol, acetone/chloroform, water. These forms were characterized by using differential thermal calorimetry and solubility studies and these are recrystallizing under the various conditions as a function of temperature. The best polymorph formation was found in the hot water sample. Adam J. Matzger et.al., (2002) Developed new polymorph crystal structure of nabumetone. Energy differences gives weak forces, these weak forces play such an important role in the kinetic and thermodynamic stabilization of nabumetone polymorphs Judith Maria Rollinger et.al., (2002) Prepared three crystal forms of torasemide from various types of organic solvents. These forms Physicochemical properties were characterized by using thermoanalysis (hot-stage microscopy, differential scanning calorimetry, thermogravimetry), Fourier transform infra-red and Raman spectroscopy, and X-ray powder diffractometry. The hygroscopicity, relative stability, true density, and heat of solutions were determined. The dissolution behaviour of mod. I and II was investigated as a function of pH, temperature, and in addition to surfactants. S. Agatonovic-Kustrin et.al., (2001) Developed two polymorphic forms 1 and 2 of ranitidine HCl. This polymorphic purity of crystalline ranitidine HCl characterized by using solid-state techniques, diffuse reflectance FT-IR and XRPD were combined. The ranitidine HCl polymorphs and quantify the composition of binary mixtures of the two polymorphs clearly distinguished by DRIFTS combined with XRPD Successfully. A.R. Rajabi-Siahboomi et.al., (2001) Investigated crystal form of Ibuprofen was obtained from various solvents like methanol, ethanol, isopropanol, and hexane. The crystal forms of ibuprofen were crystallized from methanol and ethanol gave polyhedral crystal habit, while hexane was given needlelike, isopropanol was shown elongated crystals. XPD and DSC studies results are these samples were structurally similar; the results shown that crystal habit modification of prepared crystals have a great influence on the mechanical properties (compressibility, flow rate, and bulk density) of obtained ibuprofen crystals. John Bauer et.al., (2001) Prepared Ritonavir polymorphs from various solvents characterized by using solid state spectroscopy and microscopy techniques, solid state NMR, NIR, PXRD and Single crystal X-ray. A strong hydrogen bonding network gives an unusual conformation for form II. Ritonavir was found to be exhibit two unique crystal lattices conformational polymorphism. Which are having different solubility properties. Although the polymorph (form II) belongs to the cis confirmations it is a more stable packing arrangement, nucleation. Changquan Sun and David J. W. Grant et.al., (2001) Reported bulk powders of sulfamerazine polymorph I and two different particle size of polymorph II , II(A) and II(B) were crystallized. The powders were compressed to form tablets whose porosity and tensile strength were measured and then analysed. The tabletability, follows this order, I >> II(A) > II(B) and the compressibility, follows the order, I Malamataris et.al., (2000) Prepared crystalline form of glibenclamide, with higher melting point (218 °C) and having lower solubility in simulated gastric and intestinal fluids, these are changed by transitional phases by melting, cooling and reheating. The new form of glibenclamide was obtained from the glassy state, by applying sublimation temperature at 130-160 °C. New form of glibenclamide was characterized by DSC, FT-IR, SEM, hot-stage microscopy, PXRD and solubility studies. Yumiko Kobayashi et.al., (2000) Developed polymorphs of carbamazepine and studied pseudopolymorphs (form I, form III and dihydrate) dissolution behaviors and bioavailability. The solubilities of both anhydrates (form I and form III), evaluated from the initial dissolution rate profile of each anhydrates were 1.5-1.6 times dihydrate. Gamberini et.al., (2000) Prepared three different carbamazepine polymorphic forms. Polymorphism and pseudopolymorphism can give affect on bioavailability and effective clinical use. These prepared polymorphs characterized by FT-IR spectroscopy, XRPD, DSC, Hot Stage FT-IR thermomicroscopy. The obtained three different polymorphic forms are anhydrous carbamazepine: Form III, the commercial one, Form I. Young-Taek Sohn et.al., (2000) Recognized physicochemical properties of drugs affected by the type of crystalline form of the drugs. Clarithromycin gave three polymorphic crystalline forms. New method involved to simple recrystallization of clarithromycin in different solvents like hexane, heptane or ethers, isopropyl ether. These polymorphs are compared by using DSC, XRPD with form II crystal prepared by conventional method. It indicated that improvement in the purity of the Clarithromycin polymorph form II crystal. Robert E. Dinnebier et.al., (2000) Detected three crystalline modifications (A, B, and C) and these crystal structures were characterized by using single-crystal X-ray diffraction (pseudopolymorph C) and the method of simulated annealing from high-resolution X-ray powder diffraction data and IR. Obtained crystal packing and the molecular conformation of telmisartan Demonstrating the medium-sized (MW  » 500) pharmaceutical compounds can now be solved quickly and routinely by using high-resolution X-ray powder diffraction data. MartÄ ±nez-Oharriz et.al., (1999) Investigated the physico-chemical characteristics of diflunisal-PEG 4000 solid dispersions prepared by melting, solvent and melting-solvent methods. Solvents are chloroform, methanol and ethanol-water. The drug present in different polymorphic forms. The characterization of solid dispersions was performed by X-ray powder diffraction. In solid systems obtained by the solvent and melting solvent methods and the drug solidifies in form III in ethanol / water and methanol, while polymorph IV crystallized in chloroform. In conclusion it reveled that changes in diflunisal polymorphic forms occurred during the formation of solid dispersion. Polymorphic form of drug determined by drug polymer ratio and method of preparation. Shivakumar et.al., (1999) Prepared different types of crystal and paracetmol crystals and the effect of solvents on the crystallization were characterized by using FT-IR, DSC and Powder XRD patterns. The results indicate that crystals prepared from different types of solvents exhibited different physicochemical properties. Desired physicochemical properties of crystals may be obtained by selecting the different types solvents by depending on the solubility profile of drug. Y.E. Hammouda et.al., (1999) Reported sulphadiazine (SD) a suspension of the drug in a preselected solvent (5% aqueous ammonia solution) was stirred under controlled conditions. The solvent was subsequently removed and the material dried. The effect of experimental variables such as stirring speed and time, powder/ solvent ratio and inclusion of additives (Tween 80, sodium chloride and PVP) on the properties of solvent treated SD was assessed. Data obtained were compared with those for SD recrystallized under identical conditions. Solvent treatment of SD in the absence of additives resulted in a limited change in crystal morphology as indicated by SEM. This was associated with improved flowability and a limited reduction in dissolution rate relative to untreated SD. On the other hand, recrystallized SD exhibited superior flowability but a considerably low dissolution rate. Solvent treatment of SD in the presence of 2% PVP produced a microgranular directly compressible material. Monica Bartolomei et.al., (1999) Prepared two forms of propranolol HCl and investigated the crystallization conditions and the physicochemical properties of the two polymorphs I and I. these are characterized by using FTIR spectroscopy, PXRD, thermal analysis, solubility and dissolution studies. Their stability test was followed at room temperature over a period of 1 year time and using under different conditions of temperature, grinding and compression to verify the capacity to solid-solid transition and to study the existence range of the two forms. These obtained results shown that form I was having less thermodynamically stable and more soluble and dissolved faster than crystalline form II. Ranendra N. Saha, K.Venugopal, New, et. al., (2005) Developed for the estimation of Gatifloxacin in bulk and pharmaceutical formulations UV-spectrophotometric methods were used. Gatifloxacin was estimated at 286 nm in 100 mM phosphate buffer (pH 7.4) and 292 nm in 100 mM hydrochloric acid (pH 1.2). Linearity range was found to be 1-18 ÃŽÂ ¼g ml-1, in the phosphate buffer (pH 7.4) and 1-14 ÃŽÂ ¼g ml-1 in hydrochloric acid medium (pH 1.2). These methods were tested and validated for various parameters according to ICH guidelines and USP. These methods were successfully estimated for the determination of Gatifloxacin in pharmaceutical formulations. Carolina B. Romanuk et.al., Reported two different types of polymorphic forms of new ciprofloxacin saccharinate. These two poymorphs were characterized and determine both polymorphic forms we used solid state techniques: powder X-ray diffraction, single crystal X-ray diffraction, Infrared and Solid State NMR. V. Agafonov et.al., (1991) Developed single crystals of two polymorphic and four solvated crystalline forms of spironolactone from different types solvents. All crystal forms except for the one obtained from methanol, morphology, symmetry, and crystallographic parameters were determined. The stability of crystals and transformation of each type of crystal were characterized by using DSC, TGA, and X-ray diffraction analysis. It conclude molecules of spironolactone in the three different types of lattices. Masato OHTA et.al., (1999) Investigated, heat of crystallization and heat of solution cefditoren pivoxil of different crystallinity were characterized by DSC and isothermal microcalorimetry, respectively. Cefditoren pivoxil heat of crystallization and heat of solution shown good linear correlation with the degree of crystallinity determined by Rulands method by using powder X-ray diffractogram. The crystallinity changes of amorphous cefditoren pivoxil by adsorption of alcohol vapor could be evaluated for small quantity of sample by using of heat of crystallization. microcalorimetry was used to found prediction of dissolution behavior. El-Sayed et.al., (1983) Developed four polymorphic forms of spironolactone. These crystal forms characterized by using melting point and aqueous solubility, IR, DTA, PXRD and powder dissolution. Prepared Crystals with ethyl acetate showed the lowest melting range and having highest dissolution, while prepared crystal from acetonitrile shown the highest melting range and shown low dissolution rate. Infrared spectra were not useful in clearly distinguishing between the different forms. DTA curves indicated that were different from the original form of the drug. X-ray patterns were different in intensities of radiation absorption and finally it confirming the presence of four different types of crystalline forms of spironolactone. Robert E. Dinnebier et.al., (2000) Investigated Three crystalline forms A, B, and C of telmisartan and their polymorphs crystal structures characterized by single-crystal X-ray diffraction. Explanation of the crystal packing and the molecular conformation of medium-sized (MW à ¢Ã¢â‚¬ °Ã‹â€  500) pharmaceutical ingredients can now determined by high-resolution X-ray powder diffraction data. J.M. Delgado et.al., (2007) Prepared several polymorphs of oxytetracycline hydrochloride under different conditions by crystallization: different conditions are slow evaporation, rapid crystallization, and vapour diffusion in different types of solvents. The solvents are used included like water, ethanol, methanol, ether, ethyl acetate, toluene, dichloromethane and dioxane. The obtained different polymorphs products were characterized by X-Ray Powder Diffraction, NMR, FT-IR, and Thermal Analysis (TGA and DSC). Biserka Cetina-Cizmek et.al., (2003) Developed piroxicam benzoate Solid-state properties and Investigated. piroxicam benzoate Samples were prepared by recrystallization from different types organic solvents (toluene, ethanol, methanol, ethyl acetate and acetone). Prepared samples were characterized by using FTIR, DSC, TGA, SEM and XRPD. DSC, TGA and XRPD. These are confirmed that piroxicam benzoate crystallized in two types of pseudopolymorphic forms A and B. Pseudopolymorphic form A was obtained by recrystallization in ethanol and methanol by slow cooling at ambient temperature and by rapid cooling in an ice-cold bath. Pseudopolymorphic form B was obtained by recrystallization from toluene by slow cooling at room temperature and also from toluene by rapid cooling in an ice cold bath. Arvind K. Bansal et.al., (2003) Studied generation and characterization of various solid-state forms of celecoxib, The Celecoxib drug was subjected to polymorphic screen using various types of organic solvents to exhausts the possibility of existence of different solid forms. 1:1 stoichiometric ratio of N,N-Dimethyl acetamide (DMA) and N,N-dimethyl formamide (DMF) gave solvates. Quench cooling of the melt resulted in amorphous form of the drug. All these solid-state forms were analszed by thermoanalytical (DSC, TGA, HSM), crystallographic (XRD), microscopic (polarized, SEM), spectroscopic (FTIR), and elemental analysis techniques. Morphology Influences on flow behavior of different solid-state forms was also investigated. Marcelo Antonio Oliveira et.al., (2010) Reported that the TGA and DSC are very useful for characterizing the drug and excipients stability. Verapamil hydrochloride shown thermal stability up to 180  °C and melts at 146  °C. Evaluated the Verapamil hydrochloride drug is compatible with all other excipients. The drug shown degradation when exposed to oxidizing conditions, that the degradation product resulting is 3,4-dimethoxybenzoic acid derived from the alkyl side chain oxidation. Alok Tripathi et.al., (2010) Developed ten crystalline polymorphic forms along with an amorphous form of Rabeprazole sodium. Polymorphism is gives solid physical properties they are influence on biological activity of drug, physiochemical properties of drug or substance industrial manufacturing method. Researchers attracted towards new polymorphic form of Rabeprazole sodium. Some polymorphic correlation parameters such as type of the solvent, , sequence of addition, temperature, volume of the solvent, rate of the agitation, pH of reaction mixture etc. showing effect on the polymorphism. Kalinkova et.al., (1996) Investigated polymorphism of azlocillin sodium. Results of infrared spectroscopy, thermal analysis (combined thermogravimetry and differential analysis) and scanning electron microscopy confirmed recrystallization of lyophilized azlocillin sodium from simple solvent acetonitrile causes polymorphic transformation. New polymorph obtained by crystalline form. C. Rodriguez-espinosa et.al., (1994) Investigated polymorphism crystal forms of I, II, and III forms and new crystal form (form IV ) of diflunisal and these forms characterized by using powder X-ray diffractometry, DSC, hot-stage microscopy, IR spectroscopy, and dissolution studies. The mutual transition behavior of the prepared polymorphs was determined and the melting points and melting enthalpies were charac